Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 18.06.2025 23:57
You'll usually find your answer there.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
There's no rule.
What trains transport cars and passengers near Pompano Beach, Florida that goes to New York?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Has your wife or girlfriend ever been felt up in public by a stranger?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Are there any more 'nun' jokes?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.